Following feedback on one of our public testcases [1], I contacted John
to clarify some of his comments. While we have resolved the issue with #test3
in the testcase [2] and John will soon edit the spec to clarify it, I
am still unclear about the disagreement over #test1 and #test2 which I reduced
to the attached testcase.
Given the following CSS:
< at >font-face
{
font-family: MyTestFont;
src: local(Arial);
font-style: italic;
}
#test {
font-family: MyTestFont;
font-style: italic;
}
...does #test render as italic or not ?
Firefox and Opera say no. WebKit and IE9 say yes.
So Firefox/Opera only use the font-style descriptor for font matching.
IE9 and WebKit use it for both matching and styling.
The first question is: what does the spec say ? Is there prose that unambiguously
states who is right ?
spec's intent.
If that is the case my next question is: is this rea
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